Romans 4:9
9 Cometh this [houtos] blessedness
[makarismos] then [oun] upon [epi] the circumcision
[peritome] only, or [e] upon [epi] the
uncircumcision [akrobustia] also [kai]? for [gar] we say [lego] that [hoti] faith [pistis] was reckoned [logizomai] to
Abraham [Abraam] for [eis] righteousness [dikaiosune]. KJV-Interlinear
9 Is
this blessing then only for the circumcised, or also for the uncircumcised? For
we say that faith was counted to Abraham as righteousness. ESV
In making his point, in this discussion, Paul asks the
obvious question. Does the blessing of
salvation, belong to the circumcised only, or does it belong to the
uncircumcised as well?
And in the next several verses, Paul will support his
position by asking whether Abraham, the man to whom the entire Jewish race,
looks, as the father of their race, and as the precedent of their faith. Then, which came first, the circumcision or
the promise?
If the circumcision came first, then works could
potentially have an argument as to its validity of producing salvation. But, if salvation came prior to circumcision,
than faith is the object in view.
For the scriptures quote, that Abraham believed, and
that resulted in righteousness being credited to him.
So, again, was that belief before or after circumcision,
and if circumcision came second and therefore not an issue in salvation, then
what was the purpose of circumcision.
Surely it was done for a reason.
But what?
God does not do anything without a reason. So, what would be the reason for
circumcision?
And of course the answer will come up in just a couple
of verses.
